The “Gift of the Holy Spirit” in Acts 2:38?

(Part 4, Holy Spirit series; will be intermittent)

by Perry Sexton

      On that momentous Pentecost, Peter spoke these words by inspiration (as recorded in the King James Version): “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. ³⁹For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call” (Acts 2:38,39).  Over the years, different views have been presented as to what this gift is.

      Brethren have held to and still do hold to different views as to what the gift is.  We are divided on this subject, which is contrary to the Lord’s prayer of John 17, namely verses 20 and 21.  Furthermore, we have the injunction of the apostle Paul: “Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment” (1 Cor. 1:10). These verses should move us to study more and to study together for unities’ sake, seek to understand the passages and therefore be “one” with God and with others who understand the Scriptures.  The only way to do this is to study without any prejudices at all as we must any subject.  It is sad that brethren will follow a school, a scholar, a preacher without any real study on their own.  Many rely on the scholars among us to interpret the Word of God for them.  This is not right!  The fact remains: “the common people heard him [Jesus] gladly” (Mark 12:37).  The word “heard” carries with it the idea of understanding and attending to.  We can understand the Bible without being Hebrew and Greek scholars.  We must always, in every subject area, use sound principles of interpretation.  We must not ignore or violate any sound principle.  Others have “counted numbers” who evidently have not learned the lessons of old (cp. Exod. 23:2).

      One good and sound principle is to see how the word or phrase under consideration is used elsewhere. What does the phrase “gift of the Holy Ghost” mean elsewhere?  It is found only in the following two other places (KJV) and it refers to the miraculous each time: (1^st) "And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 10:45).  Is this the personal indwelling of the Holy Spirit?  No.  Clearly, it is the miraculous gift from the Holy Spirit as seen in verse 46: “For they heard them speak with tongues…” (speaking languages never studied – miraculous).  Also note “poured out,” that is Joel’s prophecy and promise of the miraculous outpouring (Joel 2:28,29) which Peter declared “this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel” (Acts 2:16 context of v.39); (2^nd) The phrase, in the plural: "God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?" (Heb. 2:4 cp. 1 Cor. 12).  This is the miraculous as well.  (It seems clear to me that Acts 8:14-21 and Acts 19:1-6 are referring to the same thing [more later].)  So by phrase comparison there is very good evidence that the “gift of the Holy Ghost” in Acts 2:38 is also the miraculous.  

1. In fact, what evidence is there to suggest it would be anything other?
2. Where is a verse comparison showing the phrase ever to be a literal personal indwelling of the Holy Spirit in the Christian?  I have never seen one! 
3. Why should anyone think that Acts 2:38 is different from the two other examples of usage of the phrase?
1. What is the scriptural bases for such thinking (remember 1 Thess. 5:21)?
4. Is one speaking the oracles of God whenever they have no such bases (1 Peter 4:11)?

      I humbly ask for answers.  Please feel free to forward these articles on to those who believe in a literal personal indwelling of the Holy Spirit in the Christian.  I would love to see their answers to all these questions.  I believe these questions are good and deserve serious consideration.

      Please keep in mind that those pioneers of the Restoration Movement, who may have believed the phrase meant the Holy Spirit personally dwelling in the Christian, were coming out of denominational error (more on this later).  Furthermore, the Restoration preachers are not the standard of authority!

      Another good and sound principle is to always check the context.  Where in the immediate or remote context does it ever suggest a literal personal indwelling of the Holy Spirit?  I’ve never seen it though I have asked brethren for it.

      The contexts of Acts 2:38,39 concerning the “gift of Holy Ghost” and “the promise.”  Please keep in mind that man put in the chapter and verse divisions. It does help our understanding to take away this division on certain passages.  Please consider the two verses together: “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.  For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call” (Acts 2:38-39).  Is not the “promise” referring to the “gift”?  And the “gift,” is the promise of Joel which also, of course, is connected with the Abrahamic promise of Geneses 12.  ♥